Here's where you can discuss all things Ancient Greek. Use this board to ask questions about grammar, discuss learning strategies, get translation help and more!
Aristotle's Metaphysics 1031b9 sq. have both οὐθέν and οὐδέν. I was wondering where such variations are believed to have originated. (Are we to suppose that Aristotle used both, or is there no evidence either way?)
- Textkit Fan
- Posts: 222
- Joined: Wed Oct 13, 2010 6:50 pm
Return to Learning Greek
Who is online
Users browsing this forum: daivid, Yahoo [Bot] and 46 guests