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Greek = tonal language?

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Greek = tonal language?

Postby Ptahhotep » Sun Sep 07, 2003 10:33 am

[face=SPIonic]Geía sou[/face]<br />I'd like to know if the accents (grave, acute, and circumflex) were pronounced as in Mandarin Chinese (high-falling, low-rising, and high-falling suddenly to low-rising again). They exist in Spanish and Latin (except the circumflex) but are not tonilised. [face=SPIonic]Euxasistw' gia to boh'qhma saj[/face]
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Re:Greek = tonal language?

Postby mingshey » Sun Sep 07, 2003 11:11 am

Until recently I thought it was so, and in some manner it seems quite so. But in definition it's rather "high" pitch, "a little high" pitch, and their combination, respectively. See Smyth 150 and try here.<br /><br />I recollect there was recently a posting about the tones of poetic greek study, but I cannot locate it.<br />
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Re:Greek = tonal language?

Postby Emma_85 » Sun Sep 07, 2003 1:06 pm

I couldn't find the post either, though I'm sure there was one.<br /><br />BTW, I can't see your avatas (both your's and mingshey's)
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Re:Greek = tonal language?

Postby mingshey » Sun Sep 07, 2003 5:20 pm

I found it. see bingley's topic [face=SPIonic]to/ bibli/on a)fi=ktai[/face] .<br />And look for chad's post there. There's a link about the pitch.<br />
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