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τὸ χαλκῷ εἶναι

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τὸ χαλκῷ εἶναι

Postby Lavrentivs » Thu Jun 27, 2013 12:30 pm

Aristotle, Physics Γ 1, 201a31 sq.

To be brazen. But why is the adj. in the dative?

Whole sentence:

οὐ γὰρ τὸ αὐτὸ τὸ χαλκῷ εἶναι καὶ δυνάμει τινί [κινητῷ],

for it is not the same to be brazen and to be in some potentiality.

Or is it “in bronze”?---Is there a dativus materiae?
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Re: τὸ χαλκῷ εἶναι

Postby cb » Thu Jun 27, 2013 2:54 pm

hi, τὸ εἶναι with a dative is a common expression in aristotle. see footnote 5 here for lots of places where aristotle uses it:

http://www.doczonline.com/wp-content/up ... ive_rz.pdf

there's also an attempt in that article to analyse what type of dative it is, but to me it really doesn't matter what label you pin to it... cheers, chad
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Re: τὸ χαλκῷ εἶναι

Postby Lavrentivs » Sat Jun 29, 2013 8:07 pm

Thanks, Chad!
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