...καὶ γὰρ μοναρχικὰς καὶ τυραννικὰς ἤδη τινὰς τεθεάμεθα πολιτείας, αἳ πλεῖστον διαφέρουσαι βασιλείας παραπλήσιον ἔχειν τι ταύτῃ δοκοῦσιν...
...for we have had before now examples of absolute and tyrannical forms of government, which, while differing as widely as possible from kingship, yet appear to have some points of resemblance to it...
OK, this kind of thing is really starting to annoy me. διαφέρουσαι is intransitive. πλεῖστον modifies it. But πλεῖστος is a superlative adjective. In order to get the corresponding superlative adverb, it should have an alpha ending. So what gives?
Thanks in advance.
πλεῖστον as adverb?
- pster
- Textkit Zealot
- Posts: 1089
- Joined: Wed Oct 07, 2009 3:05 am
- Location: Magna Graecia
-
- Textkit Zealot
- Posts: 789
- Joined: Tue Aug 11, 2009 10:14 am
- Contact:
Re: πλεῖστον as adverb?
The plural doesn't appear to be a form used adverbially, at least according to LSJ entry.
Nate.
- pster
- Textkit Zealot
- Posts: 1089
- Joined: Wed Oct 07, 2009 3:05 am
- Location: Magna Graecia
Re: πλεῖστον as adverb?
Thanks Nate. As much time as I spend with LSJ, you would think that I would check it before bothering you folks! Actually they do mention the plural at the bottom. But you are right that most are singular.NateD26 wrote:The plural doesn't appear to be a form used adverbially, at least according to LSJ entry.