The genitive to denote quality occurs chiefly as a predicate.
ἐὼν τρόπου ἡσυχίου being of a peaceful disposition Hdt. 1.107, οἱ δέ τινες τῆς αὐτῆς γνώμης ὀλίγοι κατέφυγον but some few of the same opinion fled T. 3.70, ταῦτα παμπόλλων ἐστὶ λόγων this calls for a thorough discussion P. L. 642a, θεωρήσατ' αὐτόν, μὴ ὁποτέρου τοῦ λόγου, ἀλλ' ὁποτέρου τοῦ βίου ἐστίν consider, not the manner of his speech, but the manner of his life Aes. 3.168, εἰ δοκεῖ ταῦτα καὶ δαπάνης μεγάλης καὶ πόνων πολλῶν καὶ πρα_γματεία_ς εἶναι if these matters seem to involve great expense and much toil and trouble D. 8.48.
a. The attributive use occurs in poetry: χόρτων εὐδένδρων Εὐρώπα_ς Europe with its pastures amid fair trees E. I. T. 134, λευκῆς χιόνος πτέρυξ a wing white as snow (of white snow) S. Ant. 114.
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I am having a great deal of trouble understanding why some of these genitives of quality are predicate and others are attributive:
PREDICATE:
Hdt. 1.107: This seems OK.
T. 3.70: This would seem to be a classic case of an attributive use given the position between the article and the noun ὀλίγοι.
P. L. 642a: This seems OK.
Aes. 3.168: Here there seem to be two different levels of genitive and I'm confused which one is the genitive of quality. Starting from αὐτόν, the first step takes us to ὁποτέρου and then the second step takes us to τοῦ λόγου. Where is the actual genitive of quality in predicate position in all of this?
D. 8.48: This seems OK.
ATTRIBUTIVE:
E. I. T. 134 & S. Ant. 114: Without any article or copula to guide me, it seems these can be taken as a either predicate or attributive. Can't I just imagine a coupla participle to make them predicate as seems to be happening in the Thucydides quote?
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Quite confused.
Thanks in advance.