Genetive Absolute

[Bert]

Section 121, line 4 of Pharr reads [face=SPIonic]mh/nioj )Axilh=j proiaya/shj polla\j yuxa\j h(pw/wn )/Aidi teuca/shj d' au)tou\j e(lw/ria ku/nessin oi)wnoi=si/ te dai=ta boulh\ Dio\j e)telei/eto.[/face]<br />There is a note to section 1111. This section deals with genitive absolutes.<br />The Genitives in this line don't seem to fit the description.<br />[face=SPIonic]mh/nioj )Axilh=oj[/face] acts as the subject of the whole sentence so there is a strong grammatical connection between the words in the genitive and the rest of the sentence.<br />(Granted, I don't know any other way to explain why the genitive would be used).<br />Can someone explain why this is an example of the genitive absolute?<br />Thank you.

[Skylax]

The sentence is not so well balanced. Here, Homer's text was defaced. It means :<br /><br />"Achilles' wrath having sent forth many souls of heroes to Hades and having made them themselves spoil for dogs and meal for birds, the plan of Zeus came to fulfillment."<br /><br />The structure of the Genitive absolute is mh/nioj... proiaya/shj... teuca/shj d'... (Participial clause with the subject in the genitive. In Latin, it is Ablative absolute, and in Sanskrit Locative absolute). The grammatical subject of the sentence (in the nominative) is [face=SPIonic]boulh/[/face]. The Genitive absolute is used (as a whole) as an adverbial phrase of cause. But, in my mind,it isn't entirely logical.

[Bert]

Thanks Skylax.<br />I think I understand.<br />The part of the sentence with the genitive absolute being the larger part of the sentence, made me lose track of what the main sentence actually is. If the first part of the sentence is summarized, it is clearer to see.<br />"His wrath having caused all that,the plan of Zeus came to fulfillment" The plan of Zeus is clearly the subject here, I just did not see it before. Thanks.