hi, i just read that preverbs are already appended to their verbs in mycenean (i.e. pre-homeric) greek, e.g. ἀπέδωκε, ἐπιδέδαστοι.
(Yves Duhoux, Le système verbal grec: L'état mycénien, Proceedings of the Int. Colloq. in commemoration of the 150th anniversary of the publication of Raphael Kühner's Ausführliche..., Amsterdam 1986)
does this mean that 'tmesis' common in homer (i.e. separating the preverb from the verb, often throwing the object inside, e.g. ... Iliad 1.25, ἐπὶ μῦθον ἔτελλεν) is not just an 'earlier stage of greek where the preverb wasn't connected yet' but an artificial literary or metrical device in homer?
i mean, has someone seen an article or something on this i could read? thanks
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tmesis in homer
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