Could it be used to address a singular person (like English "you")?
If so, did it have the connotation of politeness/respect (like German "Sie")?
Thanks in advance.
Arkadi
second person plural pronoun
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Nope. A single individual was always σύ. The 2nd plural was only for more than one person.
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/ — http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
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Re: Thanks!
Hi,arkadi wrote:A somewhat related question meanwhile came up.
Plato, _Symposion_, 174 a3--"hoi So^krate^".
Why "hoi" here? Is it Attic (as dative)?
It's the dative singular of the 3rd personal pronoun.
[size=150]σωκράτη[/size] is, I think, an accusative. If we take it as the subject of the infinitive, then [size=150]οἱ[/size] means 'with him', i.e., "For he said Socrates to meet with him...'
Cordially,
Paul
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Is the name a compound of περί "exceeding" and κλέος "fame, repute"? That would bring digamma in.Thucydides wrote:While we're on the accuasative of Socrates, is there any good reason that Demosthenes and Socrates have an eta in the accusative but Pericles an (uncontracted) alpha and epsilon? All I can think of is possibly the force of a digamma hanging around in Periklewos and preventing contraction.
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/ — http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
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