This is not specifically a Greek grammar question, I post it here because it came up in my Greek 102 class. There appears to be some difference of opinion among grammarians as to whether the infinitive is properly classed as a mood, and I was wondering if anyone here has some insight on this.
Smyth (355) lists the four "finite" moods (indicative, imperative, optative, and subjunctive) and then goes on to say that the infinitive is classed by some as a mood. Gildersleeve and Lodge's Latin Grammar, on the other hand, goes so far as to say that this classification is improper. I thought maybe the classification might depend on the language involved, but it sounds like the difference of opinion exists in both languages (if not more.)
So, what really is the definition of "mood" and how would that definition include the infinitive? Or is this just a convenient pidgeon hole?