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Itacism

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Itacism

Postby Deses » Tue Nov 30, 2004 3:11 pm

What's the current consensus regarding the time of this change? (Y to I and so on).

How did those rare medieval westerners who actually knew Greek pronounce Greek words before Reuchlin and Erasmus had it all "straightened out"?
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Re: Itacism

Postby annis » Wed Dec 01, 2004 3:53 am

Deses wrote:What's the current consensus regarding the time of this change? (Y to I and so on).


They happened at different times. [face=spionic]ei[/face] started to shift about 4th century BC, [face=spionic]h[/face] about the 2nd AD. The diphthong [face=spionic]oi[/face] united with upsilon in the 2nd or 3rd century, then both went to iota only toward the end of the millenium. (All this from Palmer).

How did those rare medieval westerners who actually knew Greek pronounce Greek words before Reuchlin and Erasmus had it all "straightened out"?


They learned from Greeks, so I believe the pronounced everything like their tutors, i.e. as Modern Greek, iotas everywhere. :)
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
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Re: Itacism

Postby Deses » Wed Dec 01, 2004 2:44 pm

annis wrote:
Deses wrote:What's the current consensus regarding the time of this change? (Y to I and so on).


They happened at different times. [face=spionic]ei[/face] started to shift about 4th century BC, [face=spionic]h[/face] about the 2nd AD. The diphthong [face=spionic]oi[/face] united with upsilon in the 2nd or 3rd century, then both went to iota only toward the end of the millenium. (All this from Palmer).


Thank you. How about different dialects? I heard that in some dialects the changes were highly irregular. Cappadocian, for instance.
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