autous- them vs themselves

[Bert]

In line 4&5 of the Iliad it says [size=150]αὐτοὺς δὲ ἑλώρια τεῦχε κύνεσσιν οἰωνοῖσί τε δαῖτα,..<br />In the notes after the text (Pharr) it says that -autous- means themseles, ie. their bodies.<br />In context this makes sence, but only because the dogs and birds can't eat souls.<br />When ever I read this over, I almost automaticaly read -them- instead of themselves. It just seems that the antecedent is [size=150]πολλὰς ἰφθίμους ψυχὰς ἡρώων<br />It makes sence for [size=150]αὐτός , ‐ή, ‐ό to mean himself or themselves if it is in the nominative case,for then it adds an emphasis to the subject. In this sentence it just appears to be the object of [size=150] τεῦχε.<br />Where am I going wrong in my reasoning?

[Paul]

Hi,<br /><br />Your reasoning is fine. We moderns just aren't used to the idea that the 'real self' is the body and not the soul.<br /><br />There is a deliberate contrast between the words <br />yuxa/j and au)tou/j - souls and bodies:<br /><br />"And hurled forth to Hades many mighty souls of heros<br /> while making their bodies prey for dogs..."<br /><br />au)tou/j is indeed the object of the imperfect teu=xe.<br /><br />Cordially,<br /><br />Paul

[Bert]

Thank you. I understand now.<br />Send their SOULS to Hades, but make THEM a pray to dogs...