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Postby peripatein » Sun Oct 31, 2004 10:38 pm


I have started learning ancient greek two months ago, having already acquired quite a thorough understanding of Latin grammar and having practised both reading and composition.

I would like to pose, however, a simple question, hoping to clarify a rather simple affair, I imagine, concerning Greek accentuation.
I am, yet, acquainted only with the second declension and the first conjugation.
The rules for the accent re-positioning in the case of first conjugation verbs, are, I am afraid, not quite lucid from my limited perspective.
Whilst admitting the absence of a preliminary paradigm from which to deduce further, serving as reference, that is, how shall one come to postulate the accentuation of a long penult? For instance.
I may have brought poorly this question into being, and, however, would estime any sincere clarification.
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Postby chad » Sun Oct 31, 2004 11:28 pm

Hi Peripatein, your question is very clear :)

There is a great website which talks about accentuation in ancient Greek:

http://socrates.berkeley.edu/~ancgreek/ ... ation.html

With 1st conjugation verbs, it does not matter whether the penult is long or short. Generally, if the last syllable is short, the acute accent goes on the 3rd-last syllable (or if the verb has 2 syllables, on the 1st syllable).

légomen (we say, 1st person plural of légw)

If the last syllable is long, the acute accent goes on the 2nd-last syllable (or if the verb has 2 syllables, on the 1st syllable).

e)klégw (I pick, 1st person singular)

This is the general rule, but there are exceptions. The website linked above will explain them. Good luck!
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