I have started learning ancient greek two months ago, having already acquired quite a thorough understanding of Latin grammar and having practised both reading and composition.
I would like to pose, however, a simple question, hoping to clarify a rather simple affair, I imagine, concerning Greek accentuation.
I am, yet, acquainted only with the second declension and the first conjugation.
The rules for the accent re-positioning in the case of first conjugation verbs, are, I am afraid, not quite lucid from my limited perspective.
Whilst admitting the absence of a preliminary paradigm from which to deduce further, serving as reference, that is, how shall one come to postulate the accentuation of a long penult? For instance.
I may have brought poorly this question into being, and, however, would estime any sincere clarification.