Future optative of "to be"?

[pster]

The future perfect active is usually formed periphrastically (unlike the m/p), but is there a future perfect active optative? To form it, you would need to add the perfect participle to the future optative of "to be." Mastronarde says on p. 320, "The future perfect active indicative (or opt.) is normally formed periphrastically, from perfect active participle plus future indicative (or opt.) of eimi."

Is this right?? Is this possible?? Can somebody point me to this future optative form of eimi??

Thanks in advance.

[Baker]

See Smyth 600 and 768. The first person singular future optative of εἰμί is ἐσοίμην.


Eliot

[pster]

Argh. I knew I had to be wrong. But why would it use secondary endings? I searched for esoimi on perseus.

[Baker]

But why would it use secondary endings?

Again from Smyth (805), "Many verbs have no active future, but use instead the future middle in an active sense."

I don't pretend to know why with any certainty but I would think that it has to do with the fact that the subject is participating in the action of the verb. In Modern Greek, the verb "to be" has secondary endings in all tenses. Instead of εἰμί, it is είμαι.

Eliot

[pster]

Good hypothesis. I may have some more thoughts in the near future as I am slightly drunk on verbs this week.

[Helikwps]

Sorry but just to be clear, is there a reason the optative future becomes εσοίμην rather than εσοίμαι? Ready with my Smyth thanks!

[Baker]

Sorry but just to be clear, is there a reason the optative future becomes εσοίμην rather than εσοίμαι? Ready with my Smyth thanks!

See Smyth 462. -μην is the proper ending for the optative, whereas -μαι would work for the subjunctive.

Eliot

[Helikwps]

Ach, thanks so much for this!