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Postby pster » Wed Aug 24, 2011 7:21 am

I can see how παριόντες is a participle for "come by" but not for "be by", yet Perseus dishes up both. Wouldn't the participle for "be by" be παρόντες sans ι?

http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/mor ... s&la=greek

I thought about contractions and the possibility of α+o > αι. But my table of contractions has α+o >ω. So, I dunno.
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Re: παριόντες?

Postby Markos » Wed Aug 24, 2011 12:17 pm

It's a mistake on Perseus' part.

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οὐ μανθάνω γράφειν, ἀλλὰ γράφω τοῦ μαθεῖν.
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Re: παριόντες?

Postby NateD26 » Wed Aug 24, 2011 1:01 pm

I wouldn't say it's a complete mistake. Perseus does note it is Doric, though it's not proper Doric
but limited to Cyprus where the participle of εἰμί was also ἰών. See under LSJ:

    part. ὤν, Ep. ἐών, ἐοῦσα, ἐόν, Cypr. ἰών Inscr.Cypr.135.23 H.
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