Questions on Pl. Laws II.665D-E

[theorganicwill]

Hi all,

Two questions:

1) Why is χαίρει indicative but αἰσχύνοιτ᾽ optative?
2) Why is μᾶλλον repeated twice?

Thanks

[Markos]

Here's the Greeκ text:

πᾶς που γιγνόμενος πρεσβύτερος ὄκνου πρὸς τὰς [665ε] ᾠδὰς μεστός, καὶ χαίρει τε ἧττον πράττων τοῦτο καὶ ἀνάγκης γιγνομένης αἰσχύνοιτ᾽ ἂν μᾶλλον, ὅσῳ πρεσβύτερος καὶ σωφρονέστερος γίγνεται, τόσῳ μᾶλλον. ἆρ᾽ οὐχ οὕτως;

1) Why is χαίρει indicative but αἰσχύνοιτ᾽ optative?

The genitive absolute ἀνάγκης γιγνομένης functions as the protasis of a future less vivid condition, requiring an optative in the apodosis.

2) Why is μᾶλλον repeated twice?

It's eliptical for τόσῳ αἰσχύνοιτ᾽ ἂν μᾶλλον, "he would become more ashamed, by as much as he becomes older and wiser, by so much (he would become ashamed) more."

{ οὗτοι οἱ λόγοι Ἑλληνιστί

πᾶς που γιγνόμενος πρεσβύτερος ὄκνου πρὸς τὰς [665ε] ᾠδὰς μεστός, καὶ χαίρει τε ἧττον πράττων τοῦτο καὶ ἀνάγκης γιγνομένης αἰσχύνοιτ᾽ ἂν μᾶλλον, ὅσῳ πρεσβύτερος καὶ σωφρονέστερος γίγνεται, τόσῳ μᾶλλον. ἆρ᾽ οὐχ οὕτως;

1) Why is χαίρει indicative but αἰσχύνοιτ᾽ optative?

ἡ γενικὴ μετοχὴ «ἀνάγκης γιγνομένης» ἐστιν πρότασις καὶ τὸ «αἰσχύνοιτ᾽ ἂν» ἐστιν εὐτικὴ ἀπόδοσις.

2)Why is μᾶλλον repeated twice?

Τοῦτό ἐστιν ἔλλειψις ἀντὶ τοῦ « αἰσχύνοιτ᾽ ἂν μᾶλλον» }

[theorganicwill]

Very helpful. I see it now. Thank you.