Explanatory clauses introduced by τω...

Here you can discuss all things Ancient Greek. Use this board to ask questions about grammar, discuss learning strategies, get help with a difficult passage of Greek, and more.
Post Reply
LCN
Textkit Neophyte
Posts: 22
Joined: Sun Jul 24, 2011 12:34 am

Explanatory clauses introduced by τω...

Post by LCN »

Hi,

I can read Greek pretty well at this point but I am mostly self-taught, so there are a few minor grammatical phenomena of which I don't have a clear grasp.

One is the explanatory clause introduced by the neuter definite article in the dative case. I don't have an example handy but I can provide one if necessary.

I usually read the article as something like "in virtue of...". In any case the effective meaning of the clause is always clear. But still I'm not sure what precisely this construction is doing or what if any analogue it has in modern languages.

Can anyone shed some light on this? I can give an example or two if my question is not clear.

cb
Textkit Zealot
Posts: 762
Joined: Tue Sep 18, 2007 3:52 pm

Re: Explanatory clauses introduced by τω...

Post by cb »

hi, i presume you're referring to the dat of the articular inf; see smyth s2033:

http://www.archive.org/stream/agreekgra ... 2/mode/1up

given that you say that "the effective meaning of the clause is always clear" to you, what further thing is it that you want to know? cheers, chad :)

LCN
Textkit Neophyte
Posts: 22
Joined: Sun Jul 24, 2011 12:34 am

Re: Explanatory clauses introduced by τω...

Post by LCN »

Thanks, that reference was just what I was looking for.

As to your question one can often make out in a general way the meaning of a particular construction by understanding its context without understanding precisely what it's doing or how it should be translated.

Kind of like knowing that jiggering with the antenna on a TV improves the reception without knowing why.

Post Reply