Both λελοίπαμεν and ἕσταμεν are called "second perfects". But only ἕσταμεν is athematic. This is what Mastronarde says. But how is the one any less athematic than the other?
Thanks in advance
pster wrote:My only remaining question would be how Nate or anybody determines when the stem contains the vowel and when it doesn't.
spiphany wrote:I'm a she by the way
NateD26 wrote:spiphany wrote:I'm a she by the way
oops! I forgot. Sorry.
spiphany wrote:You can see the difference in the optative and infinitive, though.
spiphany wrote:the fact that the perfect of ἵστημι is considered a second perfect has nothing to do with its conjugation, but rather with the stem.
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