pster wrote:a) Am I right that πολλούς modifies slaves? But it is so far away! Hehe. Is that right? Or is it perhaps some sort of accusative of time? πολλούς=many times??
b) How are we to translate ὅ τι? And is it ὅ τι or ὅτι? Neither one seems to work. ὅ τι=whatever doesn't seem right. oitines seems like it would be more correct if one were to go that route. And ὅτι=that doesn't seem right either.
I think πολλούς indeed modifies οἰκέτας as direct object of ἴδοι but ἄν got the 2nd place in the clause
as it usually does (ignore καί for the sake of this argument
). I suspect, however, that there is some
hierarchy Demosthenes uses here, wherein οἰκέται are a level above δοῦλοι (LSJ notes this) and below
ξένοι with πολῖται as the highest level. So οἰκέται are perhaps butlers, freely roaming around the house
-- something δοῦλοι were probably not allowed to do -- or even the family members other than the
father (yeah, I know, chauvinistic
), who, according to these people Demos. is talking to, are saying
whatever they want, hence a participle in masc. acc. pl. modifying them and an indefinite relative
clause functioning as its direct object. I was wondering initially if it's possible to read this participle
as you read it, standing instead of the generally used complementary infinitive but I cannot find such
a use in LSJ, and in any case, such translation, i think, does not fit the context.EDIT:
Sorry, Imber Ranae beat me to it.