Greek Grammar

[PeterD]

Greetings to all

Bare with me here. I know that a finite verb which has a plural neuter noun as its subject is singular. Does this apply only to finlite verbs or does it include verbal forms like participles as well?

Example: [face=SPIonic] ta\ te/kna e)poreu/eto h)\ ta\ te/kna e)poreu/onto;[/face]

Hearing alot of good stuff about the Schaeffer & Crosby text. If anyone is using it would appreciate your thoughts on it.

Thanks

[klewlis]

I'm pretty sure it's just finite verbs.

But I'm often surprised by weird things like that. :)

[Robertus]

Hi PeterD,

Well, as the participle is a nominal form of the verb, which means that it functions as an adjective of the noun, it must agree in number with the subject it refers to, therefore neuter plural nouns must have neuter plural participles.

I guess that's it!

Robertus