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Smyth Apposition Question

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Smyth Apposition Question

Postby pster » Sun Jan 23, 2011 12:41 am

978. An appositive in the genitive may follow an adjective equivalent to a genitive: Ἀθηναῖος ( = Ἀθηνῶν) ὤν, πόλεως τῆς μεγίστης being an Athenian, a citizen of the greatest city P. A. 29d.

Why doesn't he say "(=Ἀθηναῖοu)", singular genitive? ὤν is singular. πόλεως is singular genitive. What am I missing?

Thanks in advance.
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pster
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Re: Smyth Apposition Question

Postby Imber Ranae » Sun Jan 23, 2011 4:56 am

Because obviously Ἀθηναῖος "Athenian" ≠ Ἀθηναίοu "of [an] Athenian".

Rather, Ἀθηναῖος "Athenian" = Ἀθηνῶν "of Athens".
Ex mala malo
bono malo uesci
quam ex bona malo
malo malo malo.
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Re: Smyth Apposition Question

Postby pster » Sun Jan 23, 2011 5:34 am

Wow. What a blunder on my part. You know what the problem was? I don't actually own a lexicon. I just use several different word lists and go online for Liddell and Scott But I didn't this time because the adjective was in my word list, and I forgot about the name of the city because the adjective is used substantively for the citizens; and so I figured it was probably some weird apposition and/or attraction thing. Argh. I'm going to abebooks right now! So embarrassing. Thank you very much.
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Re: Smyth Apposition Question

Postby Imber Ranae » Sun Jan 23, 2011 5:59 am

No problem. It is of course exceedingly easy to blunder with Greek.
Ex mala malo
bono malo uesci
quam ex bona malo
malo malo malo.
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