Do you mean, modus, that when you translate "this error seems to arise due to pleasure, because even though it [=pleasure] is not good, it seems [to be good], so people choose...", you read the second it
as referring to ἀπάτη? At least that's what you wrote in your second paragraph, which doesn't add up.
In this Translation by J.E. C. Welldon (1923)
He read 'appears to be...' as referring to pleasure
, and the participle as still referring to it.
I don't understand how can the verb and the participle, of the same case, number and gender, refer to different subjects in a seemingly new clause.
medea wrote:Actually, you've given two answers: the subject is "trickery" or "neither trickery nor pleasure"; then you consider the subject is "pleasure".
I don't see where I've given any answer indicating that the subject is "neither trickery nor pleasure". That was your reply. I initially read
both the verb and the participle in the second clause as referring to ἀπάτη (not fully understanding the meaning of the sentence), but then
I read the entire sentence again, as well as checked myself with the English translation, and corrected my answer, that they're both referring to ἡδονή.