How about, "formed on analogy with the aorist passive?"
χαῖρε, ὦ Μᾶρκε. That may very well be a possibility.
I was wondering if there was any difference in meaning between the 1st Aor. ἤνεγκα and the 2nd Aor. ἤνεγκον.
Smyth doesn't say much other than listing these two forms. LSJ, however, has a long morphology section
listing the different roots used in Attic, Ionic, etc. and he referenced the forms that were commonly used for the aorist.
2sg. always “ἤνεγκας” [but theoretically, when I create a table, if I chose to use 2nd aor., it's ok to put ἤνεγκες, right?]
pl. always ἠνέγκαμεν, -ατε, -αν [same as above?]
2 sets of Aorist conjugations mean throughout incl. inf./part./subj./opt./imp., correct?