NateD26 wrote:Can you please explain why is it χ and not κ? if the stem already ends in kappa, what prompted a morphological change to xi?
These "aspirated perfects" are of the unresolved issues in the history of Greek and as far as I know there's no widely accepted explanation for where they came from.
Markos wrote:χαιρετε φιλοι.
How about, "formed on analogy with the aorist passive?"
NateD26 wrote:I was wondering if there was any difference in meaning between the 1st Aor. ἤνεγκα and the 2nd Aor. ἤνεγκον.
[but theoretically, when I create a table, if I chose to use 2nd aor., it's ok to put ἤνεγκες, right?]
2 sets of Aorist conjugations mean throughout incl. inf./part./subj./opt./imp., correct?
Users browsing this forum: gregf and 68 guests