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word order question

Posted: Mon Nov 21, 2005 8:21 am
by Kip
In Wheelocks Ch.6 Practice and Review #11:

Therefore, we cannot always see the real vices of a tyrant.

My translation:

Igitur, vitia vera tyranni non semper possumus videre.

The key's answer:

Vera igitur vitia vera tyranni non semper possumus videre.

Why is the adjective vera (real) in the beginning followed by the adverb igitur (therefore)? I looked in the book and a few others I have, couldn't find any rule. Perhaps I missed something. Just wondering why the adjective vera is set away from the plural noun vitia (vices)?

Posted: Mon Nov 21, 2005 8:32 am
by benissimus
igitur is almost always a postpositive conjunction: it does not come first (but usually second) in its sentence or clause. The resulting separation of an adjective and noun is not a problem.