In Chapter 10 Sententiae Antiquae, number 5 (page 65), I have a quick question.
SEMPER MAGNO CUM TIMORE INCIPIO DICERE. My translation = I always begin to speak great with fear.
My question is why is "cum" there? Is it not redundant? "magno" and "timore" are both in the ablative case which is to be translated "by/with". If the cum was not there I would have translated the sentence as : I always begin to speak with great fear. It almost appears to need to be translated as "....with great with fear" but I know this is not correct.
at times the ablative of manner uses 'cum' with a prep even though it has an adjective before the noun. 'I always begin to speak with great fear' is the right way to translate it.
(ablative of means = never with cum; ablative of manner = always with cum before a noun only; ablative of manner before an [adjective + noun] = sometimes with, sometimes without cum, depending solely on authorial preference or the gods).
Also, when a prepositional object has an adjective modifying it, the adjective can precede the preposition (e.g. cum magna laude -> magna cum laude). Rarely the noun goes before the preposition and the adjective follows (e.g. laude cum magna).
Last edited by benissimus on Wed Sep 07, 2005 10:59 pm, edited 1 time in total.
flebile nescio quid queritur lyra, flebile lingua murmurat exanimis, respondent flebile ripae
so if i wanted to say that i began to sail with great speed, would
navigare magna cum celeritate coepi be a good translation? cum magna celeritate and magna cum celeritate are both right? Are there differences in emphasis or anything?