I'm looking at "The Poet Horace Contemplates An Invitation" text in chapter one of Wheelock. The first sentence reads:
Maecenas et Vergilius me hodie vocant.
This sentence uses the verb vocare, in the present tense (of the indicative active). I tranlate it thus:
1. Maecenas and Vergilius summon me today.
But, I also think I could translate it this way:
2. Maecenas and Vergilius are summoning me today.
The last one seems to be a present progressive statement, whereas the other is also still in the present. (My knowledge of grammar isn't really all that good so I may not be using the correct terms here.)
So is the one way better than the other? If I translated it as 1., would the Latin be different than if I translated it as 2.?

