Sorry, I meant to write, "cruel chains." Rolling Eyes I see in the answer key it reads "it oppresses me with cruel chains." This translation makes perfect sense, but without any context, how do we translate the implied pronoun correctly? If, for example, Fate, or some other abstract entity is doing the oppressing, "it" would be the logical choice for the English translation. Without a context to provide the proper subject, however, it seems to me that either translation would work. Am I way off base here? Thanks for any clarification you can provide.
elrond32 wrote:Hi all,
I recently began a review of Wheelock's Latin and had a question about one of the sentences in chapter two. Sentence number 14 reads, "Me saevis catenis onerat." I translated this two different ways: "He loads me with heavy chains," and, "He oppresses me by means of heavy chains." Both translations preserve the Ablative of Means construction (saevis catenis), right?
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