I use Wheelock's Latin, 6th, and I find many confusing sentences:
1) Supera (macron over 'a') animos et iram tuam.
(What does this sentence mean?)
2) ...bellum convivam Caecilianus habet!
(...handsome guest Caecilianus has!) Why does it not read
'bellam convivam' since adj bellam must agree with noun convivam?
3) Satisne sanus est? (I translated this as "Is sanity sufficient?", but I think I err.)
Thanks
Help in general, amabo te.
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1) 'supera' is inperative mood (singular) for verb supera|re.
'tuam' is accusative for 'tuus'. Hence, Overcome your anger and spirits.
(I'm guessing that 'animos' is meant 'animas')
2)I think 'bellum' her might mean war, instead of baeutiful. How does the whole sentence read?
3) I think you're right.
'tuam' is accusative for 'tuus'. Hence, Overcome your anger and spirits.
(I'm guessing that 'animos' is meant 'animas')
2)I think 'bellum' her might mean war, instead of baeutiful. How does the whole sentence read?
3) I think you're right.
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Re: Help in general, amabo te.
classicalclarinet translated this correctly. animos makes sense, as it can mean pride or emotions.elduce wrote:1) Supera (macron over 'a') animos et iram tuam.
(What does this sentence mean?)
You are confusing agreement of endings with agreement of gender. Take very good heed of the note on the page that says conviva, -ae is first declension masculine. Adjectives agree with the gender, not the ending of the noun, even though the endings usually match up (until you hit the 3rd, 4th, 5th declensions). Adjectives that are to agree with masculine nouns follow the second declension, adjectives that are to agree with feminine nouns follow the first declension, and adjectives that are to agree with neuter nouns follow the second declension neuter pattern.2) ...bellum convivam Caecilianus habet!
(...handsome guest Caecilianus has!) Why does it not read
'bellam convivam' since adj bellam must agree with noun convivam?
sanus means "sane", not "sanity". It says "Is he sane enough?".3) Satisne sanus est? (I translated this as "Is sanity sufficient?", but I think I err.)
flebile nescio quid queritur lyra, flebile lingua murmurat exanimis, respondent flebile ripae
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To Benissimus et Classicalclarinet
Thanks for the help. I have it in my head that if a noun ends in -a then it is feminine. (Spanish will do that to you.)
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Re: To Benissimus et Classicalclarinet
Even in Spanish this idea of "ending in -a equals feminine" is a popular misconception. Poeta means poet in Spanish, like in Latin, and it is by default masculine like artista, and it always ends in -a. Poema means poem and is masculine and also ends in -a. Even words like astronauta (astronaut) derive directly from the Latin nauta and is also a masculine noun in both languages. There are other Spanish -a ending words that are masculine, so don't hastily conclude that Spanish causes confusion when learning a noun's gender when in fact it actually helps out a lot. I know there are some differences between the two languages, but for the most part they agree.elduce wrote:I have it in my head that if a noun ends in -a then it is feminine. (Spanish will do that to you.)