I translated "The farmer gives her daughter water" to "Agricola filiae agricolae aquam dat" but the key presents "Agricola filiae aquam dat", that I would translate back "The farmer gives water to the daughter", not stating whose daughter would receive water.
Anyone can explain why my answer (an odd one, indeed) is not the correct one, and why the correct one is correct?
Thank you very much.
BSD § 47 p. 21 Ex II.4
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Re: BSD § 47 p. 21 Ex II.4
BLD cites it as “The farmer gives his (§22.a) daughter water.” Or alternately to make the the indirect object (dative) more apparent, “The farmer gives water to his daughter.”paulus wrote:Anyone can explain why my answer (an odd one, indeed) is not the correct one, and why the correct one is correct?
The note at §22.a states “The sentences above show that Lain does not express some words which are necessary in English. First of all, Latin has no article the or a; thus agricola may mean the farmer, a farmer, or simply farmer. Then too, the personal pronouns I, you, he, she, etc.; and the possessive pronouns my, your, his, her, etc., are not expressed if the meaning of the sentence is clear without them.”
Next take our English phrase “The farmer gives water to his daughter” and covert the structure into Latin order: "The farmer to his daughter water gives."
Thus the Latin would be derived as follows:
“The farmer” (nominative singular) = Agricola
“to his daughter” (dative singular) = filiae
“water” (accusitive singular) = aquam
“gives” (3rd person singular transitive verb agreeing in case and number with “Agricola”) = dat.
I hope I haven't confused you ;o)