Ev. Marc. 1,11 reads as follows:
“καὶ φωνὴ ἐγένετο ἐκ τῶν οὐρανῶν· σὺ εἶ ὁ υἱός μου ὁ ἀγαπητός, ἐν σοὶ εὐδόκησα.”
This translates approximately:
‘and voice came from the heavens: you are my beloved son, I am pleased with you.’
The meaning should be quite clear, but why do we have εὐδόκησα instead of ηὐδόκησα as the aorist, i.e. without the augment? In Homer this would be no problem, of course. I doubt that ...