I asked this question in other place and got no answer. I am sure Michael, Hylander or any number of other knowledgeable classical guys who particapte here can handle this. Simple question but not having read texts with loads of διὸ clauses I don't know the answer.
We find occasions with ἵνα where members of the ἵνα clause preceed ἵνα. Does that ever happen with διὸ?