I am new to Latin, new to D'ooge and new to this forum. I was wondering if anyone would be able to clarify something for me in Exercises 39 and 40.
In Exercise 39 Part I Number 1, it asks for the English translation of "Diana est dea", which I translate as "Diana is a goddess". In the Latin version, why is dea, which is the object of the sentence, in nominative singular ...
I know some of the Medieval letters are a bit unusual, but does anybody know what the symbol that looks like a cursive, lower-case Z is? I see it every now and then in Medieval Latin and am trying to remember. It is the reason why "videlicet" was shortened to "viz"... that's all I can remember.
The book asks 'What effect might the poet be hoping to achieve by so widely separating noun (anulos) and adjective (senos)? To which my only reply can be 'Dunno'. Maybe to make the reader wait to find out what it is that you can have six of on each finger and not put away at night. What can you have? The mind boggles.
I recently learned that 'U' can be substituted for a 'V' in some latin words to make them more understandable to a modern reader.
So if i changed: "malum diluere" into "malum dilVere" Would it still have the same translation? (to dissolve evil)
I know this sounds like a very stupid question but to be fair, im a very stupid guy.