The rules don't really make much sense in indirect statements. There are three translations that don't make sense to me.
The present infinitive is supposed to be in the same time as the main verb, but in Wheelock's book, it seems to retain the present tense when the main verb is in the future tense.
Dicent eum iuvare eam.
If I follow the rule strictly, this sentence is supposed to be translated as: They will ...