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Are you learning Koine Greek, the Greek of the New Testament and most other post-classical Greek texts? Whatever your level, use this forum to discuss all things Koine, Biblical or otherwise, including grammar, textbook talk, difficult passages, and more.

the Sabbath

Mark 1:21 reads in part, ...και ευθυς τοις σαββασιν εισελθων....
σαββατον, being second declension, would seem to me to be declined as follows: σαββατο(the root) + ις(plural,dative,neuter) giving σαββατοις. Instead it looks like third declension using σιν(plural,dative,neuter). What am I missing?
Thanks for any help.
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Quick queston about capitalization in the NT

I'm reading the Greek NT, <i>iakopou</i> to be exact, and I just realised something: the word <i>theos</i> is not capitalized. Yet, in English translations, the word "God" is always capitalized. Could anyone shed some light on this?
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Q's from BoBG

(my citations are from the 2nd edition of BoBG)
p174 sec 20.16 gives the paradigm for future active indicative(liquid) using the verb μενο and gives the 1st person singular definition as: I will remain.
Then in sec 20.18(same page) the paradigm for future middle indicative(liquid) is given using the verb μενομαι with the 1st person singular definition as: I will remain. All other meanings for each "person" are the same.
My understanding is... that μενομαι ...
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perfect participle in John 11:56

I don't understand the aspect of the perfect participle e(thko/tes.
Here is the applicable part of the verse.
e)zh/toun ou)=n to\n *)ihsou=n kai\e)/legon met' a)llh/lwn e)n tw=| i(erw=| e(sthko/tes,

I would have understood either an aorist or a present participle but I don't understand why a perfect. Having stood?
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