News of Koine and Biblical and Medieval Greek

Hi guys. I need some help please: I was checking out a web site, and one of it's 'claims' is:

''Prior to the twentieth century scholars had never come across any document that was written in the same type of Greek as the Bible. So they assumed the Bible was written in a special language; a language made specifically and only for the Bible itself. But at the turn of the twentieth century, so many ...

Two questions about this verse, please. οι παρ' αὐτοῦ is commonly translated 'his family' or 'his relations.' What is the warrant for that, rather than just 'those around - or close to - him'? And second, could εξέστη be rendered along the lines of 'it was lawful' (as related to εξεστιν)rather than, as is common, 'he is out of his mind'?

Thanks.

I have been reviewing another aspect of the prologue of 1 John and I began to think that maybe the end of verse one is appositional. περὶ τοῦ λόγου τῆς ζωῆς Concerning the word, concerning the life.

Is it a stretch or is it grammatically possible.

Thanks for your input in advance.

GTM

My friend recently told me this:

"oι is a type, a class, a group - never a 'universal all'. in order to mean a universal all - it must say 'παντες oι'."

Is this accurate??

Thanks in advance,

Sam

Hi, I am looking for a 2nd hand copy of Basics of Biblical Greek,as well as the workbook (even if it has been written in) Graded reader of Biblical Greek and other Greek aids.

Deirdre

Greeting to you all !

I am a layman of Greek and seek verification of my understanding of the Biblical Greek. I do not know whether my suggestion violates the Greek grammar or not.

For Acts 13:48, Ἀκούοντα δὲ τὰ ἔθνη ἔχαιρον καὶ ἐδόξαζον τὸν λόγον τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ ἐπίστευσαν ὅσοι ἦσαν τεταγμένοι εἰς ζωὴν αἰώνιον·

In the latter part of the verse : “as many as were ordained to eternal life, believed”,
can we ...

I know that, From going through Mounce's Book, that 1 John and the Gospel of John are likely the easiest for a beginner to start reading. I was wondering if there were any other passages that would be a little "step up" from that. Any suggestions?

I'm having trouble trying to understand the concept behind the word "ἂν". In Mounce, it says that it makes something contigent on something. Would anyone be able help clarify this pesky little particle? If you could include a few sentances, it may help a little more.

In 1 John 1:5 we read και εστιν αυτη (and this is)

In 1 John 2:25 we read και αυτη εστιν (and this is)

Is there a difference grammatically? If so what is it that the writer is saying in 1:5 verses 2:25

Thank you for your help

GTM

Matt 11:12-13 (NA27)
12 ἀπὸ δὲ τῶν ἡμερῶν Ἰωάννου τοῦ βαπτιστοῦ ἕως ἄρτι ἡ βασιλεία τῶν οὐρανῶν βιάζεται καὶ βιασταὶ ἁρπάζουσιν αὐτήν.
13 πάντες γὰρ οἱ προφῆται καὶ ὁ νόμος ἕως Ἰωάννου ἐπροφήτευσαν·

Anybody have any idea what exactly Jesus was referring to when he was quoted as saying this? What does βιάζεται refer to? Who were the βιασταί who ἥρπαζον the kingdom of heaven?
Furthermore, why did the prophets and the law (that is, ...