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Are you learning Koine Greek, the Greek of the New Testament and most other post-classical Greek texts? Whatever your level, use this forum to discuss all things Koine, Biblical or otherwise, including grammar, textbook talk, difficult passages, and more.

Drink This 'Cup' 1 Cor 11:25

I recently had a study with a minister and he asked 'Do you all drink from 'one cup' when you do comunion?' I replied 'no, there are several small cups in a tray that we drink from' To which he replied 'the church is supposed to drink from 'one cup' (meaning one cup that everyone passes around) and he sited 1 Cor 11. He says 'The Lord 'took the cup' not 'several cups'.

Uggggh. I ...
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Luke 12:49-51

Πῦρ ἦλθον βαλεῖν ἐπὶ τὴν γῆν, καὶ τί θέλω εἰ ἤδη ἀνήφθη. βάπτισμα δὲ ἔχω βαπτισθῆναι, καὶ πῶς συνέχομαι ἕως ὅτου τελεσθῇ. δοκεῖτε ὅτι εἰρήνην παρεγενόμην δοῦναι ἐν τῇ γῇ; οὐχί, λέγω ὑμῖν, ἀλλ’ ἢ διαμερισμόν.

I have at least three problems with this, probably more:

1) ἀνήφθη -- aorist passive, to kindle. Very similar to our expression "the fire has caught," I suppose. Does it apply to the earth here, or to the πῦρ? ...
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First sentence of Josephus Antiquities of the Jews


I am still a relative newbie with Ancient Greek, but I'm along enough to pluck at some "real" Greek, and when I get stuck, I read the translation, and try to figure out the Greek from the translation, which works usually very well for me. Well, for Josephus, I am stuck on his very first sentence in Antiquities.

Τοῖς τὰς ἱστορίας συγγράφειν βουλομένοις οὐ μίαν οὐδὲ τὴν αὐτὴν ὁρῶ τῆς σπουδῆς γινομένην αἰτίαν, ἀλλὰ ...
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he came to his own (τὰ ἴδια) John 1:11

Was wondering what is the significance of the change of 'to his own' might be in the following verse:

εἰς τὰ ἴδια ἦλθεν, καὶ οἱ ἴδιοι αὐτὸν οὐ παρέλαβον.

what's the significance of the change from (neuter) to (masculine) "he came to his own but his own did not recognize him"?

Read more : he came to his own (τὰ ἴδια) John 1:11 | Views : 1069 | Replies : 2

Transitional 'εις’ and Acts 2:38

There are many theological debates regarding the proper translation of 'εις’ in Acts 2:38. One theologian (I believe it was Mantey?) even said the grammar will not tell you the theology either way. It is therefore up to your theological bent.

Anywho, would like to pose these two verses to my greek friends and ask from a greek perspective shouldn't 'εις' be translated exactly the same between these two verses?

Matt 26:28 τοῦτο γάρ ἐστιν ...
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Throw the grammars away ...

... and use **TLG. I have been reading lightly thorough The Birds in the recent Harvard Ed. Today I ran across Τύχη δὲ ποία κομίζει ποτ' αὐτὼ πρὸς ὄρνιθας ἐλθεῖν. I was curios about the word order Τύχη δὲ ποία so I looked in the grammars. Found nothing.

TLG at least gives you instant evidence that patterns like Τύχη δὲ ποία are found in Tragedy and Aristophanes, probably elsewhere. So with very little work you ...
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Extra Biblical Greek Reading For 2nd Year Students ???

This comment is in regards to mwh's comment about 'read more greek' and 'consult a grammar preferably NOT a NT Grammar.' What would be your recommendations to help broaden my interpretations as a 2nd year self taught Koine student. I'm primarily interested in bible but if reading other Greek works will help my understanding I would be willing to do that.

I do have several volumes of 'Polybius the Histories' from the Loeb Classic Library. ...
Read more : Extra Biblical Greek Reading For 2nd Year Students ??? | Views : 1080 | Replies : 3

How do you pronounce the New Testament?

A lot of people read the New Testament in Modern Greek, yet there is this thing called Koine Greek... I think that this is my main point of confusion. I am interested to know what are the differences between Modern and Koine Greek, and how much we know about the pronunciation of Koine Greek. I can state this best as three separate questions:

    1. What are the pronunciation differences between Koine Greek and Modern ...
Read more : How do you pronounce the New Testament? | Views : 1604 | Replies : 7

Why Is Ιακώβ and Ιάκωβον trans. Jacob & James respective

Why in Matt 4:21 αλλους δύο αδελφούς, Ιάκωβον (translated James) and in John 4:5 ὸ έδωκεν Ιακὼβ (translated Jacob)?

Ev. Marc. 1,11

Ev. Marc. 1,11 reads as follows:

“καὶ φωνὴ ἐγένετο ἐκ τῶν οὐρανῶν· σὺ εἶ ὁ υἱός μου ὁ ἀγαπητός, ἐν σοὶ εὐδόκησα.”

This translates approximately:
‘and voice came from the heavens: you are my beloved son, I am pleased with you.’

The meaning should be quite clear, but why do we have εὐδόκησα instead of ηὐδόκησα as the aorist, i.e. without the augment? In Homer this would be no problem, of course. I doubt that ...
Read more : Ev. Marc. 1,11 | Views : 1181 | Replies : 4


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