In a sentence that consists of two parts it is common to have the verb omitted from the second part.
1 Tim. 4:18 seems to have this happen with the direct object.
r(u/setai/ me o( ku/rioj a)po\ panto\j e)/gou ponhrou= kai\ sw/sei ei)j th\n basilei/an au)tou= th\n e)poura/nion: me is omitted in the second half of the sentence, but it seems to be the object here as well.
Is this a comon thing? I can't ...