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Are you learning Koine Greek, the Greek of the New Testament and most other post-classical Greek texts? Whatever your level, use this forum to discuss all things Koine, Biblical or otherwise, including grammar, textbook talk, difficult passages, and more.

A Georgia-6 Special Election Day Treat

ἐνίκησεν ἡ τοῦ Τρπύμπ φίλη. (λέγω τὴν Ἅνδελ.) τὸν γὰρ Πρόεδρον ὁ δῆμος φιλεῖ. καὶ τί λέγω περὶ τοῦ Ὄσσοφφ? χρήματα μὲν τούτῳ πολλὰ, ψῆφοι δ' ὀλίγοι. ἐν δὲ τῷ S.C. -5 ἐνίκησαν καὶ οἱ τοῦ Τρύμπ.
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A Father's Day Treat

τῆς μὲν οὖν ἡμέρας τῶν πατέρων οὐ μέλει μοι, ἀλλὰ τοῦ τῶν ἡμερῶν Πατρός. τί δ' ἐστι ὁ Πατὴρ τῶν ἡμέρων? Θεὸς δή. πᾶσα γὰρ ἡμέρα ἐκ Θεοῦ γίγνεται.
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πας + substantival participle, which is the substantive?

A passage containing the construction in question is 1 John 5:1--πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων ὅτι Ἰησοῦς ἐστιν ὁ Χριστὸς...

What is the subject of the above clause? Is it πᾶς, with ὁ πιστεύων acting as a modifying adjective? Or is the subject ὁ πιστεύων, with πᾶς acting as a modifying adjective? Or is the whole phrase to be considered the subject?

I know that πᾶς can act as a pronominal adjective, and hence as a substantive. ...
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Potiphar, ἀρχιμάγειρος

οἱ δὲ Μαδιηναῖοι ἀπέδοντο τὸν Ιωσηφ εἰς Αἴγυπτον τῷ Πετεφρη τῷ σπάδοντι Φαραω, ἀρχιμαγείρῳ.


My wife and I have been reading Genesis together. I translate the Greek, and she corrects me from the NIV.

In the above sentence, I wasn't sure what "σπάδοντι" was just by looking at it. Perhaps I could have guessed if I had noticed that derives from σπάω (II. "pluck off"), and it means "eunuch." The Hebrew means the same thing. ...
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Luke 22:19,20

I didn't realize that there were textural issues in Luke 22:19,20 when I quoted it in the other thread. Googling, I found this from the NABRE:

Which will be given…do this in memory of me: these words are omitted in some important Western text manuscripts and a few Syriac manuscripts. Other ancient text types, including the oldest papyrus manuscript of Luke dating from the late second or early third century, contain the longer reading presented ...
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Drink This 'Cup' 1 Cor 11:25

I recently had a study with a minister and he asked 'Do you all drink from 'one cup' when you do comunion?' I replied 'no, there are several small cups in a tray that we drink from' To which he replied 'the church is supposed to drink from 'one cup' (meaning one cup that everyone passes around) and he sited 1 Cor 11. He says 'The Lord 'took the cup' not 'several cups'.

Uggggh. I ...
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Luke 12:49-51

Πῦρ ἦλθον βαλεῖν ἐπὶ τὴν γῆν, καὶ τί θέλω εἰ ἤδη ἀνήφθη. βάπτισμα δὲ ἔχω βαπτισθῆναι, καὶ πῶς συνέχομαι ἕως ὅτου τελεσθῇ. δοκεῖτε ὅτι εἰρήνην παρεγενόμην δοῦναι ἐν τῇ γῇ; οὐχί, λέγω ὑμῖν, ἀλλ’ ἢ διαμερισμόν.

I have at least three problems with this, probably more:

1) ἀνήφθη -- aorist passive, to kindle. Very similar to our expression "the fire has caught," I suppose. Does it apply to the earth here, or to the πῦρ? ...
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First sentence of Josephus Antiquities of the Jews

Hello,

I am still a relative newbie with Ancient Greek, but I'm along enough to pluck at some "real" Greek, and when I get stuck, I read the translation, and try to figure out the Greek from the translation, which works usually very well for me. Well, for Josephus, I am stuck on his very first sentence in Antiquities.

Τοῖς τὰς ἱστορίας συγγράφειν βουλομένοις οὐ μίαν οὐδὲ τὴν αὐτὴν ὁρῶ τῆς σπουδῆς γινομένην αἰτίαν, ἀλλὰ ...
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he came to his own (τὰ ἴδια) John 1:11

Was wondering what is the significance of the change of 'to his own' might be in the following verse:

εἰς τὰ ἴδια ἦλθεν, καὶ οἱ ἴδιοι αὐτὸν οὐ παρέλαβον.

what's the significance of the change from (neuter) to (masculine) "he came to his own but his own did not recognize him"?

Blessings
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Transitional 'εις’ and Acts 2:38

There are many theological debates regarding the proper translation of 'εις’ in Acts 2:38. One theologian (I believe it was Mantey?) even said the grammar will not tell you the theology either way. It is therefore up to your theological bent.

Anywho, would like to pose these two verses to my greek friends and ask from a greek perspective shouldn't 'εις' be translated exactly the same between these two verses?

Matt 26:28 τοῦτο γάρ ἐστιν ...
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