we have discussed this before, but since Phil Payne published a new paper I thought that some of you may find this to be interesting:
http://www.pbpayne.com/wp-content/uploa ... -final.pdf
He is still trying to prove that "oude" joins two infinitives to convey a single idea. What do you think?
I think it is rather strange, you cannot redefine a word simply because it could be translated differently in ...