News of Homeric Greek and Pharr's Homeric Greek - A Book For Beginners

I have just bought L&S Abridged G-E Lexicon. What is the significance of the 1 to 2 words per page in capital letters?

The Iliad is now available under the Libronics "Logos" platform
http://www.logos.com/products/details/3320

Hello all,

I just bought this book (revised version, the third edition) on Amazon.com and while flipping through it, noticed that it skips from lesson 55 to lesson 75. It is missing a little under 50 pages, and they are not torn out, its as if they were never printed to begin with.

Anybody who has this book, please check and make sure you have these pages. If so, if you would kindly respond to ...

á¼￾πέοικεν Ἀχαιοὺς γέÏ￾α παλίλλογα βασιλῆι á¼￾παγείÏ￾ειν;

I dont understand how i should take 'achaeous' in this sentence...

is the translation something like:

"Is it seemly that the Achaeans should gather together a re-collected prize for the king?"

im not sure about the 'should'... should that be 'will'?... with 'Achaeous' in the accusative doesnt that make it the subject of the infinitive? i dunno im abit lost lol...

Yianni.

οá½￾ γάÏ￾ πω τοίους ἴδον ἀνέÏ￾ας οá½￾δὲ ἴδωμαι,

οἷον ΠειÏ￾ίθοόν τε ΔÏ￾ύαντά τε ποιμένα λαῶν

Καινέα τ' Ἐξάδιόν τε καὶ ἀντίθεον Πολύφημον
Il. 1.261-264

I do not understand how these direct objects are being correlated. Why does Homer use "kai" for the last object instead of "te"?

Does anyone know wich verb ἔξεσε is a form of? I can't find it in Cunliffe's "A lexicon of the Homeric dialect" and Perseus is so painfully slow I don't even consider using it.

From context I can deduct it means cutting off.

Hello all again!

μένεος δὲ μέγα φÏ￾ένες ἀμφιμέλαιναι μίμπλαντ'...

in pharr XXXIII; what form is πίμπλαντ'?

i know its a form of πίμπλημι, but i dont know which one lol the context though seems to be suggesting its a participle or aorist... then again i might be completely wrong.

thanks :D

John.

XAIPETE! :D

Line 98-99, iliad book 1:

Ï€Ï￾ίν γ' από πατÏ￾ί φίλωι δόμεναι ελικώπιδα κοÏ￾Ï￾ην απÏ￾ιάτην ανάποινον, άγειν θ' ιεÏ￾ήν εκατόμβην ες ΧÏ￾Ï￾σην.

im abit confused why αποδίδωμι and άγω are in the infinitive form here... has it got something to do with the Ï€Ï￾ίν... Ï€Ï￾ίν construction?

Pharr says in a note to translate it as "he will not sooner frive off pestilence... till (we) give ...

ΧαῖÏ￾ε ω φίλοι!

I have been having some trouble reading this passage from Iliad 1:85-92...

"θαÏ￾σήσας μάλα εἰπὲ θεοπÏ￾όπιον, ὃτι οἷσθα-
οÏ￾ μὰ γὰÏ￾ Ἁπόλλωνα διίφιλον, ᾦ τε σÏ￾, Κάλχαν,
εá½￾χόμενος Δαναοῖσι θεοπÏ￾οπίας ἀναφαίνεις,
οὕ τις á¼￾μεῦ ζῶντος καὶ á¼￾πὶ χθονὶ δεÏ￾κομένοιο
σοὶ κοίληις παÏ￾á½° νηυσὶ βαÏ￾είας χεῖÏ￾ας á¼￾ποίσει
συμπάντων Δαναῶν, οá½￾δ' ἣν Ἀγαμέμνονα εἳπηις, 90
ὃς νῦν πολλὸν ἃÏ￾ιστος Ἀχαιῶν εὓχεται εἷναι."
καὶ τότε δὴ θάÏ￾σησε και ηὓδα μάντις ἀμÏ￾μων-

now the many questions: ...

Pharr states the following in paragraph 556:

á¼￾στί(ν) is written with an accent on the first syllable (ἔστι) when :
1) It comes at the beginning of a sentence or of a verse of poetry :
2) It denotes possibility or existence.
3) It is preceded by οá½￾κ, εἰ, καί, ὡς, μή, ἀλλ', or τοῦτ'.

But in paragraph 216 sentence 4 writes:

ΧÏ￾υσηίς οὔκ á¼￾στι χεÏ￾είων ΚλυταιμήστÏ￾ης

And in 311, sentence 3:

Ἀγαμέμνων οὔκ á¼￾στιν ...