So. I'm wondering if there is a problem with the gender of the last pronoun in sentence 9 of section 38 of Pharr's Homeric Greek.
The sentence is:
ἡ θεά της δεινης θαλάσσης ἔχει τὸ σκηπτρον χρύσεον.
(roughly transliterated: 'h Thea ths deinhs thalasshs exei to skhptron xruseon')
My question is about the pronoun τὸ (to) - shouldn't it be 'τὸν' (tov) in reference to/agreement with σκηπτρον χρύσεον (skhptron xruseon)? σκηπτρον χρύσεον (skhptron xruseon) seem ...