News of Homeric Greek and Pharr's Homeric Greek - A Book For Beginners

Since William's keys to Pharr on aoidoi.org skip the exercises for lesson 9, and since I hate not having feedback for exercises, I am posting my feeble attempts at translation here. Any constructive criticism is welcome. Thanks.

William,

One general question: I noticed that in Pharr, the word for "fatherland" is listed as pa/trh, where your solutions always have it as though it is patrh/. For instance, for the genitive you use patrh=j, whereas Pharr ...

Look closely: at line 50 we have:

ou)rh=av m\en e)pwixeto kai\ ku/nav argou/v

& then next at line 53 we have

e)nnh=mar me/n a)na\ strato\n w)ixeto kh=la qeoio

In Samuel Butler's translation we have the following: "For nine whole days he shot his arrows among the people, but upon the tenth day Achilles called them in assembly", that's ok.

But think: epí + oikhomai (vv. 50)= visit with death, strike; while oikhomai alone means "to ...

At what point did Homer start to repeat words instead of trying to use new ones?
I'm exaggerating of course, but at what point does the memory work start getting easier?
Throughout Pharr, the number of new words stays fairly constant compared to the number of lines of the Iliad. (This does not take into account the first 12 lessons where new words are introduced without getting into the Iliad.)
I was hoping to go ...

Can some one explain what e)/k means in a)ll' e)/k toi e)re/w, to\ de\ kai\ tele/esqai o)i/w

)Axilleu\j e)re/ei )Aqh/nh|, to\ de\ tetelesme/non e)/stai. o)i/w tau=ta tele/esqai.
In stilted English I think this means;

"Achilles will say to Athena, but that what has been fulfilled will be. I think these things will be fulfilled."

Is this an idiomatic was of saying; "What ever will be will be, so let it be"?

To join the Pharr reading group, visit Pharr-a.

The first official lesson day is Monday, February 9th, though that's just for introductory stuff. Lesson three will be due Thursday, February 12.

The list will be closed to new members once we get started on the lessons, but to minimize spamming the mailing list software requires a confirmation from you as well as moderator (me) permission to join. This is a little irritating, but I'm afraid ...

To join the Minckwitz reading group, visit Minckwitz-a.

As I said in the poll thread, the first lesson, lines 1-15, will be on Wednesday, February 11th.

We'll close the list to new subscriptions once we start the readings, but for now the mailing list software requires a confirmation email back from you, and moderator permission to join. This is a little obnoxious, but it'll stop most spammers.

e)/xqistoj de/ moi/ e)ssi....
You are the most hateful to me.

Does this mean that Agamemnon hates Achilles most of all, or that Agamemnon feels that Achilles hates him most of all?
Both instances are probably true, but this line likely would mean one or the other.

A few times I have been alerted to the fact that the dative case can show possession.
When I was reading Iliad 1:161, I Thought; "Aha! I know why moi is dative, it is a prize to me, ie; my prize.
The footnote in Pharr however indicates that the dative is to show that the thing is done to its (moi) disadvantage or advantage.
Here is the line: kai\ dh/ moi ge/raj au)to\j a)fairh/sesqai a)peilei=j, ...

w)/ moi, a)naidei/hn e)pieime/ne, kerdaleo/fron,
I think that a)naidei/hn is in the accusative case because it acts as object of the participle e)pieime/ne. However, I don't understand why kerdaleo/fron is neuter (I assume it is nominative)
There is nothing neuter for it to modify. If it is neuter because it is an adverb, what verb is it modifying. It wouldn't be -craftily clothed with shamelessness- would it?