Hi,
It appears that the Homeric board has been a tad quiet of late. Time to rouse it up!
In Lesson 15, trans. (G-E), #3, we have the following clause:
to\n ga\r basileu\j )Atrei/dhj e)xo/lwsen (for the king, son of Atreus, enraged him)
Does not the verb in the clause take a dative object? If so, should it not be tw|= instead of to/n?
Thank you,
~PeterD
P.S. How is the diaeresis represented in SPIonic?