In Iliad 1.44, I'm encountering the phrase χωόμενος κῆρ for the first time, and am having trouble parsing it. I understand the meaning given in context, but don't quite understand the agreement. κῆρ is unambiguously neuter, right? And χωόμενος is masculine and modifies Φοῖβος Ἀπόλλων from the preceding line? How exactly do χωόμενος and κῆρ work together syntactically?
Does the participle somehow take an accusative argument in this phrase? Is it that simple?