Hello everybody, could any one explain me why is the present tense used here?
καὶ λίην σε πάρος γ' οὐτ' εἴρομαι οὔτε μετάλλῶ,
ἀλλὰ μάλ' εὔκηλος τὰ φράζεαι, ἅσσ' ἐθέλῃσθα
(Iliad I. 553)
I understand that she says that she have never before (πάρος) neither ask nor inquire him, but he (always?) does what he wants to. If this is correct, why is not some past tense used instead of εἴρομαι/μετάλλῶ? Pharr has not made ...