I found this accentuation in Aristotle, Metaphysics Θ.8 1049 b 28:
… ἔκ τινος τι καὶ …
which seems to contradict Smyth 184 sq.
There is also 1033 b 11:
… ἔκ τινος τὶ ἔσται.
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p. 81 γέφυρα, ας, ἡ = ἡ ὑπὲρ ποταμοῦ ὁδός.
p. 3 ἀγγέλλω =λέγω ὡς νέον ὄν, φέρω ἀγγελίαν, κηρύσσω, δηλῶ.
p. 32 ...
mwh: Largely thanks to its particles, Greek articulates itself without the need for punctuation. A new thread perhaps: Is punctuation redundant? We’d certainly become better readers if we went without it.
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