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Can ὀνομάζουσιν be used with personal pronouns?

danbek wrote:2. Several times Rouse uses ονομάζουσιν to describe a person's name e.g. "ονομάζουσιν δ' εμε μεν Θρασύμαχον". Why a 3rd person *plural* for the verb here? I found this confusing because at this point only his father has been mentioned, not his mother. Should I understand this as meaning something like "People call me ..."?

Hi danbek,
ὀνομάζουσιν is used commonly enough in the sense you have rightly deduced from context. You can see the ...
Read more : Can ὀνομάζουσιν be used with personal pronouns? | Views : 973 | Replies : 19


Rouses's Greek Boy, section II

Hi,

I have a few questions about section II of Rouse's Greek Boy.

1. The phrase "και μην άλλα γε έχει τεκνα ὁ Θράσυλλος". I understand this as meaning something like "And in fact Thrasyllus has other children ...", but what is the γε doing?

2. Several times Rouse uses ονομάζουσιν to describe a person's name e.g. "ονομάζουσιν δ' εμε μεν Θρασύμαχον". Why a 3rd person *plural* for the verb here? I found this confusing ...
Read more : Rouses's Greek Boy, section II | Views : 953 | Replies : 10


is this reading representative of any particular tradition?

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=xcIvDUehsfE
I'm not familiar with the "map" of extant modern ways of reading Ancient Greek, so would be grateful for a simple characteristic of this one vis-à-vis (some) others.
Read more : is this reading representative of any particular tradition? | Views : 1086 | Replies : 21


Asclepiades v.169

I'm having trouble figuring out how this sentence works, specifically the bit in bold:

ἡδὺ θέρους διψῶντι χιὼν ποτόν, ἡδὺ δὲ ναύταις
ἐκ χειμῶνος ἰδεῖν εἰαρινὸν Στέφανον

Here is what I've deduced so far (but not sure if this is correct):
1. χιων is nominative (ἡ χιων = 'icy water')
2. ποτον is accusative (ὁ ποτος = 'a draught')
3. You have to understand ἰδειν in the first clause, which explains why ποτον is accusative, ...
Read more : Asclepiades v.169 | Views : 1594 | Replies : 45


Plato, Protagoras 339b τυγχάνει + perf.prtc. of μέλω

Plato, Protagoras 339b wrote:τοῦτο ἐπίστασαι τὸ ᾆσμα, ἢ πᾶν σοι διεξέλθω;

καὶ ἐγὼ εἶπον ὅτι οὐδὲν δεῖ: ἐπίσταμαί τε γάρ, καὶ πάνυ μοι τυγχάνει μεμεληκὸς τοῦ ᾄσματος.

Is this irony? He seems to be saying that he chanced upon something that he spent a great deal of care on.


Does the μοι serve a double function or is the sense just understood in the second part of the phrase?


how does ἔστιν ὅτε function in this segment from Thucydides

I´m struggling with how ἔστιν ὅτε is functioning in this passage from Thucydides, Book 1 - chapter 25. If someone would be willing to provide some insight, I would be grateful. Thanks in advance for any help.

ναυτικῷ δὲ καὶ πολὺ προύχειν ἔστιν ὅτε ἐπαιρόμενοι καὶ κατὰ τὴν Φαιάκων προενοίκησιν τῆς Κερκύρας κλέος ἐχόντων τὰ περὶ τὰς ναῦς

Source: http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/tex ... ection%3D4


Eur. Med. 1404 οὐκ ἔστι

What is the sense of this οὐκ ἔστι here. The best I can get is "Get real!", "Look at what is actually in front of you", "That's not the way things are."

The tone of the passage seems emotionally charged and abrupt - as she rubs his face in it. The tone is also in the following statement, which seems to be, "There is no point to saying that (he wanted to embrace and touch ...
Read more : Eur. Med. 1404 οὐκ ἔστι | Views : 769 | Replies : 8


What does LCL mean?

C. S. Bartholomew in the Archimedes' quote thread wrote:the LCL translator doesn't make it a question... LCL translations ...

What is this "LCL translator"? Is it a Firefox add-in or stand alone software?
Read more : What does LCL mean? | Views : 601 | Replies : 1


Etymology or cognates for ἀνιαρός?

Is there a ready etymology or any cognates for ἀνιαρός?

This question arise while reading τήνδ᾽ ἔτι λύπην ἀνιαροτάτην (Eur.Med.1113)

My first thoughts are "unhealable" or "which can't be gotten through", but I'm not convinced by them.
Read more : Etymology or cognates for ἀνιαρός? | Views : 629 | Replies : 3


Eur. Med. 1178 (and generally) πρὸς τὸν ἀρτίως πόσιν

Does the use of an adverb in a nominal phrase like πρὸς τὸν ἀρτίως πόσιν, indicate that we should imagine an appropriate verbal form (participle of a verb of marriage) when reading it, or does the adverb function temporarily as a differentbword class, ie serve as an adjective?


 

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