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Plato, Protagoras 339b τυγχάνει + perf.prtc. of μέλω

Plato, Protagoras 339b wrote:τοῦτο ἐπίστασαι τὸ ᾆσμα, ἢ πᾶν σοι διεξέλθω;

καὶ ἐγὼ εἶπον ὅτι οὐδὲν δεῖ: ἐπίσταμαί τε γάρ, καὶ πάνυ μοι τυγχάνει μεμεληκὸς τοῦ ᾄσματος.

Is this irony? He seems to be saying that he chanced upon something that he spent a great deal of care on.

Does the μοι serve a double function or is the sense just understood in the second part of the phrase?

how does ἔστιν ὅτε function in this segment from Thucydides

I´m struggling with how ἔστιν ὅτε is functioning in this passage from Thucydides, Book 1 - chapter 25. If someone would be willing to provide some insight, I would be grateful. Thanks in advance for any help.

ναυτικῷ δὲ καὶ πολὺ προύχειν ἔστιν ὅτε ἐπαιρόμενοι καὶ κατὰ τὴν Φαιάκων προενοίκησιν τῆς Κερκύρας κλέος ἐχόντων τὰ περὶ τὰς ναῦς

Source: http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/tex ... ection%3D4

Eur. Med. 1404 οὐκ ἔστι

What is the sense of this οὐκ ἔστι here. The best I can get is "Get real!", "Look at what is actually in front of you", "That's not the way things are."

The tone of the passage seems emotionally charged and abrupt - as she rubs his face in it. The tone is also in the following statement, which seems to be, "There is no point to saying that (he wanted to embrace and touch ...
Read more : Eur. Med. 1404 οὐκ ἔστι | Views : 533 | Replies : 8

What does LCL mean?

C. S. Bartholomew in the Archimedes' quote thread wrote:the LCL translator doesn't make it a question... LCL translations ...

What is this "LCL translator"? Is it a Firefox add-in or stand alone software?
Read more : What does LCL mean? | Views : 372 | Replies : 1

Etymology or cognates for ἀνιαρός?

Is there a ready etymology or any cognates for ἀνιαρός?

This question arise while reading τήνδ᾽ ἔτι λύπην ἀνιαροτάτην (Eur.Med.1113)

My first thoughts are "unhealable" or "which can't be gotten through", but I'm not convinced by them.
Read more : Etymology or cognates for ἀνιαρός? | Views : 408 | Replies : 3

Eur. Med. 1178 (and generally) πρὸς τὸν ἀρτίως πόσιν

Does the use of an adverb in a nominal phrase like πρὸς τὸν ἀρτίως πόσιν, indicate that we should imagine an appropriate verbal form (participle of a verb of marriage) when reading it, or does the adverb function temporarily as a differentbword class, ie serve as an adjective?

Eur. Med. 1143 ἑσπόμην aor. of ἕπομαι where is the σ from?

In the aorist form ἑσπόμην from ἕπομαι "I am following", where is the sigma from?
Is the aorist of this verb suppletive?

The question arises while reading:
Eur.Med. 1142 - 1143 wrote:ἐγὼ δὲ καὐτὸς ἡδονῆς ὕπο
στέγας γυναικῶν σὺν τέκνοις ἅμ᾽ ἑσπόμην.

Eur. Med. 1112 λύει ... ἐπιβάλλειν (λύει +inf.)

1112 - 1115 wrote:πῶς οὖν λύει πρὸς τοῖς ἄλλοις
τήνδ᾽ ἔτι λύπην ἀνιαροτάτην
παίδων ἕνεκεν
θνητοῖσι θεοὺς ἐπιβάλλειν; 1115

Two questions here:
Is this some type of impersonal construction with λύει?
What noun is understood with πρὸς τοῖς ἄλλοις (sc. ???)?

Eur. Med. 1059 μὰ τοὺς παρ᾽ Ἅιδῃ νερτέρους ἀλάστορας,

1059 wrote:μὰ τοὺς παρ᾽ Ἅιδῃ νερτέρους ἀλάστορας,

I find this challenging. Is this appeal to the Alastores actually asking them to do good and to right wrongs? Is Euripides portraying Medea as having turned vengence on its head by saying that the death of the children will be a good thing?

Eur. Medea 1027 λαμπάδας τ᾽ ἀνασχεθεῖν

What is this form ἀνασχεθεῖν? My guess is that is an infinitive with πρίν. Does it just collocate with the torches, or eith all the things she has done for them?

ὦ τέκνα τέκνα, σφῷν μὲν ἔστι δὴ πόλις
καὶ δῶμ᾽, ἐν ᾧ λιπόντες ἀθλίαν ἐμὲ
οἰκήσετ᾽ αἰεὶ μητρὸς ἐστερημένοι:
ἐγὼ δ᾽ ἐς ἄλλην γαῖαν εἶμι δὴ φυγάς,
πρὶν σφῷν ὀνάσθαι κἀπιδεῖν εὐδαίμονας, 1025
πρὶν λουτρὰ καὶ γυναῖκα καὶ γαμηλίους
εὐνὰς ἀγῆλαι λαμπάδας τ᾽ ἀνασχεθεῖν.
Read more : Eur. Medea 1027 λαμπάδας τ᾽ ἀνασχεθεῖν | Views : 414 | Replies : 2


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